It feels
as though we have been building up to this discussion for some time now, always
dancing around the topic of good and evil but rarely exploring what they might
actually mean. The dichotomy of good and
evil is ever present and often sharply contrasted in all of Tolkien's work;
despite some small grey area, there are clearly evil forces and clearly good
forces.
One of
the key questions relating to evil in The
Lord of the Rings is of course the question of just what is the One
Ring. In our reading and in class it has
been described variably as pure power, as an entity with a will of its own, or
as a corruptor of beings, among other things.
There has been much talk of the Ring binding the wills of the people of
Middle Earth to its own will, or to Sauron's will. But the process of doing so is far from automatic. Frodo, of course, gradually becomes more susceptible
to the Ring's influence the longer he carries it, from the first few times he
puts it on to the episode at Minas Morgul all the way to Mount Doom where he
finally succumbs and chooses to preserve the Ring. Boromir travels with the Fellowship for some
time before he attempts to take the Ring from Frodo. The Nine, while not in direct possession of
the One Ring, are never the less bound to it over time through their own rings,
turning into wraiths before they are even fully aware of the transformation.
One
theory of evil proposed it that evil is simply the absence of good, that men
(or elves, or dwarves, etc) in their natural state without the constraints of
morality will turn to actions that we would consider to be evil. Some suggested that the Ring removes these
constraints by giving power to its bearer ("absolute power corrupts absolutely")
but there may be more to it than this. Perhaps
the Ring's primary power is that it erodes wills, stripping its bearers of
power rather than giving them power.
What better way to bind wills to its own if said wills are eroded?
However,
there is the problem of Gandalf, who claims that with the Ring he would become
remarkably more powerful than he is.
Even more importantly, he believed that he would exert a form of
domination over the people of Middle Earth.
How then, do we reconcile this with the idea that the Ring primarily
weaken those who would hold it?
In the
LeGuin reading, the Hans Christian Anderson story about the man and his shadow
was discussed. The shadow, the part of a
human unbridled by societal and moral restriction, is compared to the wraiths
from The Lord of the Rings due in
large part to both of them being incomplete in some way. The Nazgul, as well as Gollum, have lost some
essential part of what made them living beings with souls before. In the case of men, what made them men was
their free will and ability to shape their own destiny. This is what was taken away from the
Nazgul. In other words, the Ring strips
those it affects of something fundamental to their being. Returning to the case of Gandalf, what he
would have lost in seeking to dominate Middle Earth would be his passive wisdom
and also his mandate and mission as one of the Maiar to assist without exerting
power over people. It would have been a
violation not only of his orders but who he was, given his purity and
benevolence. Boromir wanted the Ring to
defend Gondor from the forces of Sauron, but how long would it have been before
his actions became motivated by merely inflicting vengeance and pain on those
dark forces with little regard for his own people.
So the
Ring does indeed give power to its bearers, but it is an empty power, since
they lose themselves before they can use that power to enact things which they
might have seen as just. Not all of the
Ring's bearers become such obvious slaves as Gollum, but even with a facade of
power, they all become slaves none the less.
For the very fact that the Ring is able to change people so
fundamentally means they are enslaved to it, whether it appears that way or
not. Sauron himself may be the only one
to not lose something to the Ring.
Domination and the breaking of other's wills was already natural to him,
and these were the qualities of himself which he put into the Ring. And by the time he had made the Ring there was
no truly good trait left in him for the Ring to take even if it could.
So this
brings us back around to the original question which asks us to define what
true evil is, precisely. In this essay I
have focused mostly on the idea of evil as an absence of good, or that it is internal
to people, but the Ring can fit into
multiple modes of thinking. As Tom Shippey
points out on page 142 of The Road to
Middle-Earth, the Ring corrupts people both passively through the desire
people feel for it and actively by its "betraying" of its
bearers. There is a contradiction about,
for the evil in its bearers seems to come about through their loss of whatever
the Ring takes from them, but there can be no denying that the Ring must be
something of an active force of evil, thus external, in order to bring about that change in it
bearers.
Perhaps
we can see evil as domination, as making things changing the nature of things
(we have discussed previously about how evil and change are so closely
associated, especially in the case of Melkor), particularly in the sense of
removing a being's good qualities. What
is domination if not the ability to shape a thing's very nature? And that is what the Ring is: a dominant
force with the power to alter the nature of those who hold it.
James Mackenzie
1 comment:
These are some very interesting meditations. I especially like how you recognized the fundamental connection between evil and the deformation of the nature of things. We might think more about why such a deformation is in fact evil and that that implies both for our understanding of evil, and for our understanding of the good. Why precisely might changing our natures be fundamentally evil?
Does this mean that being good ultimately just means acting according to our nature? Or is it something more (or something entirely different!) than that?
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